January 31, 2008

Disproof of Catholic doctrine?

No, I'm not going Protestant. :P I simply thought of this last night and can't get it out of my mind. I got this while reading Surprised by Joy, by C. S. Lewis, interestingly enough.

So, Jesus is fully human and fully divine, i.e. he's a divine person with both human and divine natures. Ok, got that. Now the question. If he has divine nature (Creator) and human nature (created) wouldn't he, in a sense, have to have created himself? And if so, isn't that a contradiction (as one cannot both be creator and created at the same time). The answer to the question that arrises immediately is that he was God before he was man, but God is above time and thus that is irrelevant. I suppose that since he created his human nature and not his own human person that he wouldn't have created himself, but rather just his nature...but that to me does not make much sense. I suppose also that some might think that the person of the Father was the creator, and not the Son, but John 1:3 "All things were made by him [the Word i.e. Jesus]: and without him was made nothing that was made." All persons of the Trinity were directly involved in all the steps of salvation, creation, redemption, and sanctification.

I suppose I may have disproved it, but I'm altogether not sure enough. If any of you would like to help, please do!



Anonymous Anonymous said...

I think you should keep in mind that, although His divine nature is beyond space and time, Jesus' human nature is not; therefor, the the fact that He was God before Me was man is very relevant.

January 31, 2008 11:10 PM  
Anonymous Anonymous said...

typo: read 'Me' as He....

January 31, 2008 11:10 PM  
Anonymous Caleb Dean said...

Ambrose, I think that Jesus had created a body and had inhabited it. And, though God is above space and time, he can still act in it.

February 01, 2008 11:01 AM  
Blogger Francisco Romero-Carrasquillo said...

Dear Ambrose,

I took the liberty of quoting you in my blog and posting a reply:


-Mr. Romero.

February 01, 2008 3:05 PM  
Blogger Immortal Philosopher said...

Thanks for the reply, Mr. R. That clears it up.

Caleb, Jesus did not "inhabit a body". To say so is to assert...some heresy or other. Starts with an N. Can't remember the name...

Jesus had to be fully human in order for salvation to be enacted. See, if he only inhabited a body, then only the body would have died, not Jesus himself, and thus we could not have salvation. Thanks for trying to help, though.

February 04, 2008 8:38 AM  

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